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The term fractional reserve originates from the banks obligation to keep a percentage (fraction) of reserves compared to loans issued. That obligation no longer exists.
This means that for any amount deposited in the bank, it can lend any amount greater than that deposit.
This is only possible in a fiat currency scheme where there's no money, only currency (debt) issued by the author.
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Finally, it is often the case that people advocating for full reserve lending are the same people advocating for lower time preferences. This is a direct contradiction, as the former implies infinite time preference.I am having a hard time understanding this
Then why does collateral exist?
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If you just lend it to me without any security, I'd say it is an unsecured loan and there is no reserve at all.
When people say fractional reserve don't they mean that a bank or something loans out more money than they have on deposit?
Here's something I often think about (but struggle to understand):
This is from Voskuil's Full Reserve Fallacy
The way I currently understand it is that in order to land something out, you must risk that you will not get it back. Otherwise you haven't actually lent it out.