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The term fractional reserve originates from the banks obligation to keep a percentage (fraction) of reserves compared to loans issued. That obligation no longer exists.

This means that for any amount deposited in the bank, it can lend any amount greater than that deposit.

This is only possible in a fiat currency scheme where there's no money, only currency (debt) issued by the author.

Finally, it is often the case that people advocating for full reserve lending are the same people advocating for lower time preferences. This is a direct contradiction, as the former implies infinite time preference.

I am having a hard time understanding this

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I have a hard time understanding most of Voskuil's stuff. I find the exercise of thinking about it is usually fruitful (unclear whether the credit belongs to Voskuil or not).

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